In the Bible, Jesus is called the son of man over 80 times.

 God sent the Qur'an to correct what humans changed in the Bible.

 It is logical to say that the scribes of the Bible changed the word (Mary) into(man) throughout the Bible.

With women having such a low status through out the Bible, it is likely that the Bible writers referred to Jesus as son of a MAN rather than son of a WOMAN

The Greek word for woman in the Bible is "oudemia " while the word for man cuts out the (mia) to leave only "oudeis" so we can see how the word woman could have, and is, cut to man, rather than wo-man.;

Although because we are considered equal in the Qur'an, and male pride or ego had no part in the creation of the Qur'an.

Jesus was and is correctly named as "son of Mary" while the Bible still labels him as son of _man_.

 If the Bible was free of alterations and changes, than it too would have *Properly* called Jesus "son of Mary" as the Qur'an does, because like Adam, Jesus has no father, so it is simply illogical (as many other changes in the Bible) to call Jesus a son of _man_.

Were the Bible writers ashamed to label Christ's origin from a woman?

What ever their political or personal motivations, they are absent from the Qur'an, thank God.

Peace

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