5.10 The ultimate test
of Jesus
Many verses of the Bible make reference to the "three day and
three night" prophesy (Matthew 20:19...etc.). Christian scholars
themselves make mention of several cases throughout the Bible
where people have put words in Jesus' mouth (see chapter two).
They also recognize many passages of the Bible as being of a
questionable nature. However, let us simplify this matter a
little in order to make it easier to recognize the tampering
fingerprints of the unscrupulous. Let us start with the
assumption that no human being ever added or removed a single
word from the Bible and move on from there. Please try to stay
with me on this and you will see how only a very small amount of
logic will prove that Jesus (pbuh) never said these words:
You would be hard pressed to find a single Christian today
who has not heard of the "three days and three nights"
prophesy. Where do they get it from? They get it from "the
Gospel of Matthew." What does it say? If we read Matthew 12 we
will see how the Jews were giving Jesus (pbuh) no end of
trouble. They were constantly doubting him and refusing to
accept him. They had seen countless signs of his prophethood but
insisted on disbelieving. Finally they ask him for a sign of his
prophethood. How does Jesus (pbuh) allegedly respond to this
request? Does he draw their attention to his healing of the
lepers and the blind? No. Does he draw their attention to his
casting out of devils? No. Does he point out his raising of the
dead? No. Does he mention any of his other countless miracles?
No. Well, what does he say? He says:
"But he answered and said unto them, An evil and
adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no
sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas:
For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's
belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in
the heart of the earth"
Matthew 12:39-40
In effect, Jesus (pbuh) was claimed to have put all of his
eggs in one basket. He was telling them that "NO"
sign shall be given to them "BUT" the sign of
Jonas. This ONE sign shall ALONE decide who is
truthful, him or those who doubted him. This shall be the "be
all end all" acid test of his truthfulness.
Now, what is "Good Friday"? "Good Friday"
is the day Christians tell us Jesus (pbuh) was crucified. In
Merriam Webster's Collegiate Dictionary (tenth edition), it is
defined as "the Friday before Easter observed in
churches as the anniversary of the crucifixion of Christ."
This is also confirmed by the Bible:
"And now when the even was come, because it was the
preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath"
Mark 15:42
So the Bible tells us that Jesus (pbuh) died on Friday, just
before nightfall.
According to the Bible, the Jews had been carting Jesus (pbuh)
back and forth on "Good Friday" between
Pontius Pilate and Harod trying to get a conviction
and official sanction to crucify him. After all of this carting
back and forth, they finally get him to the cross
and hang him up on it. However, no sooner have they gotten him
up on the cross than they are in a hurry to get him back down
again. Why is that? It is because they believed that if he
remained on the cross all night then he would defile their land.
"And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he
be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree: His body
shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any
wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of
God;) that thy land be not defiled, which the LORD thy God
giveth thee for an inheritance."
Deuteronomy 21:22-23
So the Jews begged Pilate to break Jesus' legs so that he
would die quickly from suffocation:
"The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that
the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the Sabbath
day, (for that Sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate
that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken
away.."
John 19:31
About the sixth hour (twelve noon), Jesus is claimed to be in
front of Pilate (John 19:14). According to the
Bible (e.g. John 19:30), Jesus died around the ninth hour (three
PM). During these three hours Jesus was dressed in purple with a
crown of thorns and made fun of, spat on, abused and beaten, and
then made to carry the cross to the location of his
execution (John 19:17), the cross was planted in the ground, he
was hung up on it, his title was written in Hebrew, Greek and
Latin on the cross, lots were cast and his clothes distributed,
he spoke to one of the two thieves and to an apostle, many
people passed before him and rebuked him, he was given something
to drink, and he died, all of which took place in these three
hours, and his legs were never broken. After that there was
thunder, an eclipse, and an earthquake,
the veil of the temple was rent in twain, and the dead came out
of their graves. Jesus (pbuh) was then let down and placed in
the shroud and the tomb. Early Sunday morning (the first day of
the week according to the Jews), while it was still dark, Mary
Magdalene visits the tomb alone (Mark 16:9, John 20:1) and finds
the stone moved and Jesus (pbuh) missing. Let us count:
Event |
Days |
Nights |
"Good Friday " |
- |
one |
Saturday (the sabbath) |
one |
one |
Sunday morning |
- |
- |
Total |
one day |
two nights |
As you can see, it is impossible to add up the days and
nights so that they equal "three days and three nights."
Assuming that Jesus (pbuh) waited until just before the arrival
of Mary to leave the tomb, the Bible tells us that Jesus (pbuh)
was in the ground for ONE day and TWO nights. Has the prophesy
been fulfilled? Has the ONE "be all end all" sign to the Jews
been established?
Further, it is important to remember that Jonah was swallowed
alive by a whale and remained in its belly
alive for three days. His miracle was not that the whale
swallowed him, nor that it swallowed him whole, nor yet that he
remained in it's belly for three days (If I eat a piece of food
and it remains in my stomach for three days, is this a
"miracle"?). The miracle of Jonah was that HE DID NOT DIE.
For Jesus to have properly fulfilled the prophecy, he would need
to enter the tomb alive and come out alive just as Jonah entered
the whale's belly ALIVE and came out of it's belly ALIVE. Why
should Jesus give this of all signs if he was to die and
be resurrected? Where is the "miraculous" similarity with the
miracle of Jonah?
A Christian gentleman from Canada once asked us: "Why do
Muslims doubt that the scriptures always taught the death and
resurrection of Jesus." Can we now see why Muslims recognize
such claims to be later insertions and not the words of Allah's
elect messenger Jesus (pbuh) nor his most honorable apostles?
Have we made anything up? Have we not been quoting directly from
the same Bible every Christian has at home? For more, please
read Mr. Ahmed Deedat's book "Crucifixion or Cruci-fiction."
Indeed, Christian scholars are beginning to recognize that
the text of Matthew 12:38-40 was in fact embroidered by the
church in order to be able to claim that Jesus (pbuh) himself
had prophesied the crucifixion. The original form of this verse
can be seen in Mark 8:11-12, where we read:
"And the Pharisees came forth, and began to question with
him, seeking of him a sign from heaven, tempting him. And he
sighed deeply in his spirit, and saith, Why doth this generation
seek after a sign? verily I say unto you, There shall no sign be
given unto this generation."
... and that is all. There is no mention of
"three days and three nights"
nor "the sign of Jonah" nor anything else. These were all added
on later (please read section 2.1 for more on this topic).
As a side note regarding the renting of the veil
of the temple and resurrection of the dead, Mr. Tom Harpur
says
"The story of the saints' being resurrected from the tombs
to the east of the city, just below the Mount of Olives, and
going into Jerusalem is also the result of an attempt to give
mythical form to the belief that Jesus was the "first fruits of
them that slept," Surely an event of such stupendous dimensions,
had it actually occurred, would have not only found its way into
other Gospels (than Matthew) and letters in the New Testament,
but would also have been recorded in some other Jewish or Roman
historical source. Yet the record is silent."
For Christ's Sake, Tom Harpur, p. 102
It is also interesting to note that while those who were not
apostles (such as Luke) give detailed descriptions of all of
these most stupendous and earth-shaking events, in spite of
that, the "Gospel of John," which was supposedly written by the
apostle John the son of Zebedee, found it completely unnecessary
to mention any "renting of the veil
of the temple", or any "rising of the dead", or any earthquakes,
or any eclipses of the sun, or any of these other most
stupendous events. Did the apostle John feel all of these events
to be inconsequential and undeserving of mention, or has the
church been "embroidering" the events of the crucifixion? Did
the apostle John "not notice" the earth shaking beneath his
feet, or the sun being blotted out above his head? Did he "not
notice" the dead coming out of their graves? It is interesting
to further note that such "mourning of all of creation" for the
death of an important figure was not restricted to Jesus (pbuh).
Only seventy years earlier, Julius Caesar's
death was documented to have been accompanied by similar
stupendous acts of nature, as well as many members of the clergy
after that. (Go back and read chapter three for more on this
topic).
When prophet Muhammad's infant son Ibraheem died, his death
happened to coincide with an eclipse of the sun. All of the
Muslims came running to him exclaiming "It is a miracle, the sun
itself is mourning the death of your only son." Upon hearing
this, prophet Muhammad became very angry with them and said
'The sun and the moon do not eclipse because
of the death of any among mankind. They are but two signs among
the signs of Allah. When you see them stand up and pray.'
Narrated by AbuMas'ud in Sahih Al-Bukhari
The priest and scholar Anselm Turmeda*, who later
became a Muslim says:
"This description of the tragedy you have already read has
been completely derived from an old book. This record was
written by a Jewish historian when Titus conquered and destroyed
Jerusalem. Now we see the same phrases in the book of Matthew.
In other words, somebody has inserted these words into the Book
of Matthew."
(for more on Anselm, please read section 6.3 of this book)
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